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2016~2017年度初二英语上册期末试卷（答案）
越学习，越发现自己的无知。下面是小编整理的2016~2017年度初二英语上册期末试卷(答案)，大家一起来看看吧。
I.听力部分(共三大题，每小题1分，满分20分)
A.单句理解 听句子，从所给图中选出与所听到的句子情景相同(相近)的图画。(句子读两遍，每小题1分，满分5分)
1. A. B. C.
2. A. B. C.
3. A. B. C.
4. A. B. C.
5. A.
B. 听对话 根据所听到的内容，选择正确的答案 (对话读两遍，每小题1分，满分10分)
第一节：听下面3段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳答案。
6. What was the boy’s mother doing at 7:00 p.m. yesterday?
A. Cooking. B. Doing some washing. C. Watching TV.
7. What are they talking about?
A. A film. B. A book. C. A song.
8. What does Lily want to be when she grows up ?
A. A teacher. B. A dancer. C. A singer.
第二节：听下面3段对话，每段对话后有二或三个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳答案。
听第1段对话，回答9、10题。
9. What’s wrong with Helen?
A. She has a toothache. B. She has a headache. C. She has a stomachache.
10. What does the man ask her to do?
A. To have a rest. B. To take some medicine. C. To see a dentist.
听第2段对话，回答第11、12小题。
11.Is Dave a football player?
A. I have no idea. B. Yes, he is. C. No, he isn’t.
12.What will he do next week?
A. Have a football game. B. Go for a picnic. C. Go swimming.
听第3段对话，回答第13—15小题。
13. When is the concert?
A. Tomorrow morning. B. Tomorrow afternoon. C. Tomorrow evening.
14. What is the concert about?
A. National Day. B. Teachers’ Day. C. Children’s Day.
15. What does John think of tennis?
A. Easy and relaxing. B. Hard but interesting. C. Hard and boring.
C.听短文 根据短文内容选择最佳答案(短文读三遍，每小题1分，满分5分)
16. Where is the band(乐队) going to perform?
A. In Beijing. B. In Shanghai. C. In Chongqing.
17. How many singers were there in the rock band last year?
A. 5. B. 4. C. 3.
18. What’s wrong with the fourth singer?
A. He is hurt. B. He is tired. C. He is ill.
19. What’s his favorite band?
A. The Beatles. B. U2. C. The FIR.
20. What does the singer like doing?
A. Swimming and climbing. B. Swimming and skating. C. Swimming and running.
II.选择填空 从A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案 (每小题1分，满分15分)
21. We should provide the people in the earthquake _________ food.
A. with B. for C. to
22. You should not ____________ your parents.
A. to talk with B. talk with C. shout at
23. There were _______ animals in the forest many years ago.
A. five thousands B. thousands of C. thousand of
24. It’s important to protect the _________. They are the lungs of the earth.
A. medicine B. forests C. wood
25. Han Wenda is very funny and he often makes his classmates ________.
A. laughing B. to laugh C. laugh
26. I like this room because it is _______ than that one.
A. very big B. more bigger C. much bigger
27. —Must I go to see a doctor when I have a headache?
—No, you _______. You may have a rest.
A. don’t B. needn’t C. can’t
28. —George plays the guitar very well. Who taught him?
—Nobody. He taught _______.
A. herself B. myself C. himself
29. —There a new 3D movie this weekend.
—Really? Let’s go and watch it.
A. is going to have B. will have C. is going to be
30. —Hi, Tom. I called you yesterday evening, but nobody answered. Where did you go?
—Oh, I’m sorry. I _____________ an interesting book in my study.
A. was reading B. read C. will read
31. —My daughter could play the piano at the age of four.
— _________________ clever girl!
A. What B. What a C. How
32. —_______ do you have a sports meet at your school?
—Once a year.
A. How soon B. How often C. How long
33. —Do you think the answer is correct?
—__________ You had better ask our teacher.
A. I’m sure. B. I’m not sure. C. I think so.
34. —How do you like folk music? —__________
A. It’s great. I love it. B. It is so boring. C. I hate to listen to it.
35. —Would you mind _______ in the classroom?
—Sorry, I won’t do that again.
A. not running B. don’t run C. not to run
III.完形填空 从A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案 (每小题1分，满分10分)
It’s very important for us to keep safe now. The last Monday 36 March is for students to learn it at school. It helps students learn 37 about what they should do to keep themselves safe. What are the 38 at school? Let’s take a look.
Stampedes(踩踏), earthquakes and fires are the main accidents at school.
A stampede always 39 in crowded places. When students around you begin to push(推), just stand there and try to hold onto 40 . If you fall down in the crowd, move to one side and 41 your head with your hands around.
If you are in the classroom when the earthquakes happen, sitting on the floor in a doorway or a wall is 42 than standing in the middle of the classroom. Do not try to run out of the building. If you are 43 , move to a clear area, find a place away from buildings and trees.
When there’s a fire, leave the classroom. It’s better to put something wet over your 44 and nose. Many people die in a fire, not because of the fire but smoke. That’s very dangerous! 45 when you want to get out, you should make yourself close to the floor. Then you can breathe(呼吸) some fresh air.
36. A. on B. in C. at
37. A. less B. little C. more
38. A. problems B. accidents C. things
39. A. happen B. happened C. happens
40. A. something B. anything C. nothing
41. A. put B. protect C. move
42. A. happier B. more dangerous C. safer
43. A. in a room B. outdoors C. indoors
44. A. mouth B. ears C. eyes
45. A. So B. But C. Or
IV. 阅读理解(满分30分) 阅读以下A、B、C三篇短文，请根据要求作答。A篇根据短文内容，从题中所给选项中，选择最佳答案;B篇根据图表信息选择正确答案;C篇是任务型阅读，根据材料内容回答句子(每小题2分，满分30分)
(A)
In 2014, FIFA World Cup Brazil(巴西世界杯) must be the most exciting thing in the world. It lasted from June 12th to July 13th. The Chinese National Soccer Team was so ungeilivable，but the Chinese people showed great interest in the World Cup .
So, why is the World Cup such a big event? People love it for different reasons. Many people are interested in it because they wish to see the exciting games. Some think it is a good chance to get together with people from all over the world.
Many famous stars also show great interest in the biggest event in soccer. People see them fighting for their teams. You know about Lionel Messi(里奥内尔•梅西) and Cristiano Ronaldo(克里斯蒂亚诺•罗纳尔多)!In the World Cup games, you can see players as good as them. They are the world’s two best soccer players but their teams didn’t win even one World Cup. One player does NOT make a team. And that is the beauty of soccer.
46. The soccer games lasted more than _________this year.
A. one week B. two weeks C. one month
47. The underlined(划线的) word “ungeilivable” means _________in Chinese.
A.强大的 B.弱小的 C.不给力的
48. Lots of people love the World Cup because _________.
A. they can see the exciting games B. there are many chances joining the club
C. they can see their national team
49. Lionel Messi and Cristiano Ronaldo are two _________.
A. countries in the games B. famous soccer players C. records of the World Cup
50. In the soccer games, _________is the most important to a team.
A. the best player B. a famous star C. teamwork between players
(B)
Different Festivals
Symbol
Name Chinese New Year Boys’ Festival Bull-running Festival
(奔牛节) Halloween
(万圣节) Christmas Day
Date January or February July 6th to July 14th May 5th October 31st December 25th
Country China Japan Spain The USA Western (西方的)countries
51. Boys can enjoy a nine-day festival in ___ in July every year.
A. China B. Japan C. the USA
52._________ comes last in a year.
A. Bull-running Festival B. Christmas Day C. Chinese New Year
53. The symbol of Bull-running Festival is__________.
A. the bull(公牛) B. dumplings C. fish
54. There are _________ festivals in the USA .
A. 4 B. 3 C.2
55. We can know people are celebrating a festival in January or February in__________
A. Spain B. the USA C. China
( C )
American country music is famous all over the world, such as the songs of John
Denver. Many people enjoy listening to the music in their free time. But still some
people don’t know where it began.
Country music comes from folk music of the Appalachian Mountains in the east of
America. There, people sing while they are playing the guitar and violin. They usually
sing about love and problems. So the songs are sometimes a little sad.
John Denver is one of the most popular country music singers. He is also quite famous to
the Chinese. For John Denver, music is a language that could bring the world together.
He says music can bring people together. They will understand each other through music.
The world lost a great man when John Denver died in 1997. But his words and music
will still live on(永存).
56. What do many people enjoy doing in their free time? _________________________________
57. What kind of music does American country music come from?__________________________
58. What does American country music usually tell us about?______________________________
59. Is John Denver a country music singer or a pop music singer? __________________________
60. When did John Denver die? ____________________________________________________ V. 完成句子 根据汉语意思完成句子，每空填一个单词。(每空1分，满分15分 )
61. 她每天花半个小时在体育馆锻炼。
She an hour in the gym every day.
62. 她现在不在，要我传个口信吗?
She is not here now. Can I ?
63. 我过去常常喜欢收集邮票。
I enjoy stamps.
64. 我认为玫瑰花是所有花中最美丽的。
I think roses are of all the flowers.
65. 蓝鲸以最小的海洋动物为食
Whales _________ __________ the smallest __________ animal.
Ⅵ. 口语应用 根据对话内容，填入适当的句子，使对话完整、正确(每小题2分，满分10分)(A = Michael B = Tony)
A: Hi , Tony!
B: Hi, Michael! Winter holidays are coming. 66 ?
A: I’m going to visit my grandparents in the countryside.
B: Sounds interesting. 67 , the city or the countryside?
A: I like the countryside better. 68 , Tony?
B: I think life in the city is more wonderful.
A:69 . The countryside is quieter than the city. The air is fresher and the sky is bluer.
B: Maybe you’re right. Have a good trip!
A: 70 . See you later.
B: See you.
VII. 短文填词(每题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，根据中文，首字母，音标或语境的提示，在每一个空格内填入适当的单词，要求所填入的单词意义准确，形式正确，拼写正确。
Many people were surprised to find that Han Tianyu won a medal in the 2014 Winter Olympics. On February 10, Han won the 71 [fə:st] medal for China in the men’s 1,500 short track speed skating(短跑道速滑). Han started skating when he was about five years 72 . At that time, skating was only one of his 73 (爱好). He never thought that he could be on the national(国家的) skating 74 [ti:m].
Han has many 75 (不同的) kinds of interests. However, Han likes skating most. His parents let him 76 ['fɔləʊ] his heart. From 2006 to 2010, Han’s father even gave u 77 his job to go with him .
Han cannot go back home very often 78 (因为) he is too busy. When he is at h 79 , his mother will cook some delicious food for him.
Like many young people, Han 80 some computer games to relax himself when he is free. Guess what his favorite game is?
Ⅷ.书面表达(10分)
81. 在生活中，你是如何度过自己的空闲时间呢?是参加体育运动、外出旅游……还是听音乐、看小说……请你以 My Spare Time为题，谈谈你对空闲时间的安排。70词左右，首句已给出。
(温馨提示：短文中请勿使用真实姓名、地点或所在学校名称。)
内容要点：1. What do you usually do in your spare time?
2. Is it good or bad for you? Why?
3. What will you do in your spare time in future(以后)?
My Spare Time
In my life, I usually spend most of my spare time on…,
参考答案
I.听力部分 (满分20分)
A. 听句子 (每小题1分，满分5分) 1-5：ACBAB
B. 听对话(每小题1分，满分10分) 6-10：BCCAC 11-15：BAACB
C. 听短文(每小题1分，满分5分) 16-20：ABCBC
II.单项选择(每小题1分，共15分)
21-25 ACBBC 26-30 CBCCA 31-35 BBBAA
III.完形填空(每小题1分，共10分)
36---40BCBCA 41---45 BCBAA
IV.阅读理解 (满分30分)
A . (每小题2分，共10分) 46—50 CCABC
B. (每小题2分，共10分) 51-55 BBACC
C. (每小题2分，共10分，大、小写均可得分)
56. listening to the music
57. It comes from folk music .
58. It tells us about love and problems.
59. He is a country music singer.
60. He died in 1997.
V. 完成句子 根据汉语意思完成句子，每空填一个单词。(每空1分，满分15分 )
61. spends, half, exercising 62. take/leave, a, message 63. used, to, collecting
64. the, most, beautiful 65. feed ,on, sea
VI.口语应用 (每小题2分，共10分)
66. What are you going to do 67.Which do you like better 68 How/What about you 69. I don’t agree/I don’t think so
70. Thank you /Thanks
VII.短文填词 (每小题1分，满分10分)
71. first 72. old 73. hobbies 74. team 75. different
76. follow 77. up 78. because 79. home 80. plays
VIII.书面表达(满分10分)
81. One possible version:
My Spare Time
In my life, I usually spend most of my spare time on the Internet.
On weekends, I chat with my friends on the Internet. It helps me make many friends, but it makes me feel less interested in my studies. During holidays, I lose myself in playing games online. I stay up so late that I feel tired the next day. It does harm to my health, too.
I need a change. I’ll take part in sports. Doing sports will help me keep fit. I’ll travel to some places of interest during the summer holidays.
书面表达评分标准参考
说明：要求表达完整，句子通顺，内容与所给要求相符。
1)10-9分：能完整地叙述文章要点，字迹整洁、行文连贯、语言准确、字数合乎要求。
2)8-7分：能写明绝大多数要点，表达清楚、行文连贯、语言基本无误、字数合乎要求。
3)6-5分：能写明绝大多数要点，表达较清楚、行文基本连贯、语言有少量错误、字数基本合乎要求。
4)4-3分：能写出多数要点，语言有些错误、字数不足30字。
5)2-0分：能写出部分要点，语言错误多、不能表达出完整的概念，字数不足20字。
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